QUOTE(woozle @ Oct 11 2008, 05:42 AM)
Though i can see how one might think language could reflect the male/female thing but i include scandinavia under weird cultures

so don't know anything much about megalithic culture there.
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How could language not reflect the male/female thing? And since when was Britain considered a Southern European country?
which came first the chicken or the egg?
britain a s european country?? wot???
First of all, the argument about the chicken or the egg isn't very effective here in discussing the language argument. Secondly, I misread your following comment and that led me to believe that you considered Britain a Southern European country.
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Southern european carvings specifically, megalithic culture in general britain in particular.
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So what alternative theories about the roots of the English language do you believe in then?
Put it this way, i believe english was always english. Welsh was always welsh and so on. I'm quite certain that if you could speak to a bronze age man living on salisbury plain for example the language would be similar to ours and understandable. That a handful of saxon invaders from a miniscule tribe modified the language whilst, say, the romans did not, strikes me as a bit silly. Something yuo read in history books but don't actually think about. Anyway the saxons had gender based language, the english didn't/don't.
Erm...no. I think your theory about being able to speak to and understand a bronze age man using modern English is erroneous. The bronze age peoples were celtic, they spoke a celtic language and you could no more communicate with a person from the bronze age than you could a Welsh person speaking Welsh. As for the Romans, speaking latin was something done out of preference in order to sound cultured. People would switch between the languages. The following article discusses Latin loan words in British:
BritishAs for the number of Anglo-Saxon invaders, we don't know. However judging from genetic evidence as carried out on the modern day population, I would say that it was more than a handful. The Saxon language became Old English and then that became Middle English and then that eventually became Modern English however as Gawain points out - not in any standard form. There are still massive regional differences. If you look at texts from these different periods of evolution of the English language, it is clear that English has it's roots predominantly in Anglo Saxon/Old English (Compare Beowulf with Sir Gawain and the Green Knight/Plenty/Cleanliness/the Canterbury Tales and then with Shakespeare and then with Modern English and it is pretty clear).
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As i said ask some people and see what they tell you. very simple really.
The romans considered the moon a female but it wasn't always like that apparently. Who's to say that germanic languages didn't change? Or did those languages remain stagnant since the beginning of time?
Well no....and the evolution of those languages is just as traceable as our own. With the exception of Icelandic of course which has changed very little since the Viking age to the extent that Icelanders can still read Viking age texts without translations. What is your evidence that the Romans didn't always consider the moon to be female?
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It seems that most people think that scandinavian paganism of which i know nothing, started and ended with the bloody vikings. What about all the populations before them or, again, is their language exactly the same as it was 10,000 years ago, or 20,000 years ago etc.?
Um...no. The problem with sources from the Viking age is that there is a lot of Christian influence in there that needs to be sifted through. Reconstructionalists tend to work with archaelogical evidence too in order to try and build up a more complete picture of the pre-Christian worldview/s in that part of the world. For example, the literature written in the Viking age, says that the dead either go to Valhalla, Hel or to Ran (the sea). However evidence from burial mounds suggests that people believed their ancestors to inhabit the burial mound or else why make offerings there? This in turn suggests a very different belief regarding the soul. The soul as something that separates from the body after death and goes to another place was a foreign idea to those people.
Unfortunately we can only judge language when there is evidence to judge it from. Unfortunately there is no evidence of the language 10,000 years ago or 20,000 years ago. There are pictographs to show ideas and things they considered to be important however no words to attach to those pictures.
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A handful of non pagan britons?Dont't see what that has to do with anyting. I think you might have a fair few more referencing the 'man in the moon' than you think.
I really don't think so. Maybe now, but not in the past You originally specified non pagan britons in your post:
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It would be interesting to ask a handfull of non pagan britons to see what they say. 100 to 1 the sun is a male.
As for the past and references to the man in the moon - it's not a modern idea. The author John Lyly in the prologue to his book Endymion (1591) said:
"There liveth none under the sunne, that knows what to make of the man in the moone."This believing in things without evidence is rather catching on Pagan forums